[tex]\large \bold {SOLUTION}[/tex]
The Pythagorean theorem states that x² + y² = 1, if x= cos A and y = sin A, does this statement ends up to equal 1?
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The statement is True
The trigonometric functions and the Pythagorean Theorem is related to one another because both of them forms a triangle accurately, it means that it forms the measurements of a triangle.
The Pythagorean Theorem uses the sides to find the other measurement of the hypothenuse, while the trigonometric functions uses angles to solve the same thing.
x² + y² = 1 can be interchangeable in terms of sin and cos stating the Pythagorean Identity such that
cos (A)² + sin (A)² = 1
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