[tex] \tt 1, \frac{1}{2} , \frac{1}{4} , \frac{1}{8} , \frac{1}{16} ,[/tex]...
[tex] \tt a=1, π= \frac{1}{2} [/tex]
Sum to infinite terms
[tex] = \tt \frac{a}{1 - \pi} = \frac{1}{1 - \frac{1}{2} } [/tex]
[tex] = \tt \frac{1}{ \frac{1}{2} } = 1 \times 2[/tex]
[tex] \tt = 2[/tex]
Hence answer is 2
